Wrong shortcode initialized Wrong shortcode initialized FEBRUARY 17, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following measures is likely to reduce cost-push inflation? Increasing repo rate Reducing indirect taxes Reducing government expenditure Selling government securities in the market 2 / 5 In India, inflation targeting is the responsibility of: Finance Commission Ministry of Finance Reserve Bank of India NITI Aayog 3 / 5 The "Inflation Targeting" framework was recommended by: Raghuram Rajan Committee Urjit Patel Committee Kelkar Committee Tarapore Committee 4 / 5 Which of the following is a monetary measure to control inflation? Reducing customs duty Raising CRR Increasing subsidy Decreasing fiscal deficit 5 / 5 Which of the following statements about headline inflation is correct? It excludes volatile items It includes prices of all items including food and fuel It is calculated using core CPI It only reflects rural price movements Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 16, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following indicators is used in the Human Development Index (HDI) but not in the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)? Life expectancy at birth Mean years of schooling GNI per capita Access to clean cooking fuel 2 / 5 As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which age group has the highest unemployment rate in India? 15–24 25–34 35–44 45–59 3 / 5 Which of the following is not included in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) basket in India? Food Housing Education Capital goods 4 / 5 Which of the following best defines "core inflation"? Headline inflation minus food and fuel prices Inflation adjusted for exchange rate Inflation caused by fiscal deficit Rate of inflation of wholesale prices 5 / 5 Which organization releases the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India? RBI CSO Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 15, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following schemes aims to provide skill training to youth in India? Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Swachh Bharat Mission 2 / 5 Which one of the following best describes the term "jobless growth"? Growth of employment without GDP growth GDP growth without a corresponding increase in employment Decline in employment despite increase in population Increase in employment in the informal sector 3 / 5 Which one of the following is most likely to reduce poverty in the long run? Higher minimum wages Universal Public Distribution System Free electricity to farmers Promoting inclusive and high-quality education 4 / 5 Which of the following statements is correct about unemployment in India? Structural unemployment is prominent in agriculture. Frictional unemployment is a long-term problem in India. Seasonal unemployment is prevalent in the service sector. Cyclical unemployment is caused by overpopulation. 5 / 5 The "working poor" in India refers to: People with part-time jobs Unemployed individuals actively seeking jobs People employed but still living below the poverty line People working in government sectors without promotion Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 14, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is not a component of the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)? Nutrition Years of schooling Income Electricity 2 / 5 Which of the following committees is associated with the estimation of poverty in India? Rangarajan Committee Kelkar Committee Shome Committee Narasimham Committee 3 / 5 Which of the following is not a poverty alleviation programme in India? Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act National Rural Livelihood Mission Mid-Day Meal Scheme 4 / 5 Which of the following is not a characteristic of disguised unemployment? Marginal productivity is zero More people are employed than required It is prevalent in urban areas It is common in agriculture 5 / 5 Which of the following is not a type of unemployment? Structural Frictional Cyclical Permanent Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 13, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is not a feature of a good tax system? Equity Certainty Complexity Convenience 2 / 5 Which of the following is not a component of the Union Budget? Revenue Budget Capital Budget Supplementary Budget Monetary Policy 3 / 5 Which of the following is not a source of non-tax revenue for the Government of India? Dividends and profits Interest receipts Income Tax Fees and fines 4 / 5 In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because: Poverty rates vary from State to State Price levels vary from State to State Gross State Product varies from State to State Quality of public distribution varies from State to State 5 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) includes health, education, and standard of living indicators. The MPI is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 12, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is not a direct tax in India? Income Tax Corporate Tax Securities Transaction Tax Excise Duty 2 / 5 Which of the following is a progressive tax? Income Tax Sales Tax Excise Duty Customs Duty 3 / 5 Which of the following committees recommended the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India? Kelkar Committee Chelliah Committee Vijay Kelkar Committee Shome Committee 4 / 5 Which of the following is not a function of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)? Formulation of policy concerning direct taxes Administration of direct tax laws Levy and collection of indirect taxes Suggesting legislative changes in direct tax laws 5 / 5 Which of the following taxes is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States? Stamp duties on bills of exchange Taxes on the sale and purchase of goods other than newspapers Taxes on inter-state trade Taxes on professions, trades, callings, and employments Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 11, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax on e-commerce firms, consider the following statements: It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. It applies only to non-resident companies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Which of the following taxes is/are levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States? Stamp duties on financial documents Taxes on the sale and purchase of goods in the course of inter-state trade Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Which of the following is not a component of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India? Central GST (CGST) State GST (SGST) Integrated GST (IGST) Corporate GST (CGST) 5 / 5 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Finance Commission of India? It is a constitutional body. It is constituted every five years. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 10, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following taxes is levied exclusively by the Central Government in India? Sales Tax Corporate Income Tax Property Tax Stamp Duty 2 / 5 The concept of ‘crowding out’ in public finance refers to: Increased private investment due to government borrowing Reduced private investment due to high government borrowing Increased tax revenue due to economic growth Reduced public expenditure due to inflation 3 / 5 Which of the following is a capital receipt for the government? Tax revenue from income tax Grants received from foreign governments Proceeds from disinvestment of public sector enterprises Revenue from excise duties 4 / 5 The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in India aims to: Increase government expenditure on welfare schemes Ensure fiscal discipline by setting targets for deficits Regulate monetary policy tools Control foreign direct investment 5 / 5 Which of the following measures is used to reduce a fiscal deficit? Increasing government borrowing Reducing public expenditure or increasing tax revenue Printing more currency Increasing revenue expenditure Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 9, 2026 1 / 5 The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India is an example of: Direct tax Indirect tax Progressive tax Corporate tax 2 / 5 Which constitutional body in India is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States? NITI Aayog Finance Commission Reserve Bank of India Comptroller and Auditor General 3 / 5 The Fiscal Deficit is defined as: Total revenue receipts minus total expenditure Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings Revenue expenditure minus capital expenditure Total receipts minus total expenditure 4 / 5 Which of the following is a component of India’s revenue expenditure? Investment in infrastructure projects Payment of salaries to government employees Repayment of principal on loans Construction of highways 5 / 5 What is the primary objective of fiscal policy in India? To regulate the money supply in the economy To achieve economic stability, growth, and equitable distribution of income To control foreign exchange rates To manage private sector investments Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 8, 2026 1 / 5 The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) allows banks to: Borrow funds from the RBI at a rate higher than the repo rate in emergencies Lend funds to the government at a fixed rate Deposit excess funds with the RBI at a lower rate Issue new shares to raise capital 2 / 5 Which of the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy? Bank Rate Credit Rationing Cash Reserve Ratio Statutory Liquidity Ratio 3 / 5 Open Market Operations (OMO) by the RBI involve: Buying and selling government securities to regulate money supply Setting interest rates for commercial bank loans Regulating foreign exchange rates directly Issuing new currency notes to banks 4 / 5 Which committee recommended the adoption of the Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework for India’s monetary policy? Narasimham Committee Urjit Patel Committee Raghuram Rajan Committee Bimal Jalan Committee 5 / 5 The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requires banks to: Maintain a minimum percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in cash Invest a minimum percentage of their liabilities in government-approved securities Lend a fixed percentage of their deposits to priority sectors Deposit a fixed amount with the RBI annually Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 7, 2026 1 / 5 What is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) monetary policy? To regulate the stock market To maintain price stability and promote economic growth To control foreign direct investment To manage public sector banks 2 / 5 Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy used by the RBI to control money supply? Goods and Services Tax (GST) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Foreign Exchange Reserves Public Debt Management 3 / 5 The money market in India primarily deals with: Long-term loans and investments Short-term funds and securities Equity shares and debentures Gold and commodity trading 4 / 5 What is the repo rate? The rate at which banks lend to customers The rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks The rate at which banks deposit funds with the RBI The rate at which the government borrows from the RBI 5 / 5 Which of the following instruments is NOT typically traded in the Indian money market? Treasury Bills Commercial Paper Corporate Bonds with 10-year maturity Certificates of Deposit Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 6, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is a macroeconomic variable? Price of a specific good in a market Unemployment rate of the entire economy Production cost of a single firm Consumer preferences for a particular product 2 / 5 The concept of ‘marginal utility’ refers to: The total satisfaction derived from consuming all units of a good The additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good The cost of producing an additional unit of a good The change in price due to increased consumption 3 / 5 In a perfectly competitive market, equilibrium price is determined by: The government through price controls The interaction of demand and supply The monopoly power of a single firm The cost of production alone 4 / 5 Which of the following factors is likely to cause a leftward shift in the demand curve for a good? An increase in consumer income for a normal good A decrease in the price of a substitute good A successful advertising campaign for the good An increase in the price of a complementary good 5 / 5 The ‘law of diminishing marginal utility’ implies that: Total utility decreases as more units of a good are consumed The additional utility from consuming extra units of a good decreases over time The cost of producing additional units increases with consumption The demand for a good becomes perfectly elastic over time Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 5, 2026 1 / 5 Utility theory in microeconomics is primarily concerned with: Measuring the satisfaction derived from consuming goods and services Calculating the total revenue of a firm Determining the equilibrium price in a market Analysing the impact of fiscal policy on consumption 2 / 5 In the context of supply, a rightward shift in the supply curve indicates: A decrease in supply due to higher production costs An increase in supply due to technological advancements A decrease in supply due to reduced consumer demand No change in supply but an increase in demand 3 / 5 Which of the following is a key difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics? Microeconomics studies individual markets, while macroeconomics studies the economy as a whole Microeconomics focuses on inflation, while macroeconomics focuses on consumer behaviour Microeconomics studies aggregate variables, while macroeconomics studies individual firms Microeconomics excludes demand and supply analysis, unlike macroeconomics 4 / 5 In microeconomics, the concept of ‘elasticity of demand’ measures: The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price The total revenue generated by a product The change in supply due to a change in production costs The relationship between income and consumption 5 / 5 What does the law of demand state? As price increases, quantity demanded increases As price decreases, quantity demanded decreases As price decreases, quantity demanded increases Quantity demanded is independent of price Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 4, 2026 1 / 5 In India, the Central Statistical Office (CSO) changed the base year for GDP calculation to 2011-12 from 2004-05. What is the primary purpose of changing the base year? To include only nominal GDP calculations To reflect changes in economic structure and price levels To exclude the informal sector from GDP estimates To align with international GDP standards only 2 / 5 Which of the following is a limitation of using GDP as a measure of economic welfare? It includes the value of intermediate goods It does not account for environmental degradation It excludes the contribution of the services sector It is calculated only at factor cost 3 / 5 The GDP deflator is used to: Measure the contribution of the informal sector to GDP Convert Nominal GDP into Real GDP Calculate the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) of an economy Estimate the value of intermediate goods in GVA 4 / 5 Which sector contributed the highest share to India’s GVA in recent years (as per the latest available data)? Agriculture and allied activities Industry Services Mining and quarrying 5 / 5 In the context of National Income, Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost is also known as: Gross Domestic Product National Income Personal Income Disposable Income Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 3, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is NOT a component of the Expenditure approach to calculating GDP? Government spending Net exports Depreciation Private consumption 2 / 5 Real GDP is calculated by: Adjusting Nominal GDP for inflation using the GDP deflator Adding subsidies to Nominal GDP Subtracting net factor income from abroad from Nominal GDP Including only the value of final goods at current prices 3 / 5 What is the key difference between GDP and Gross National Product (GNP)? GDP includes taxes, while GNP excludes them GDP measures production within a country, while GNP includes net factor income from abroad GDP is calculated at factor cost, while GNP is at market prices GDP excludes depreciation, while GNP includes it 4 / 5 In India, which approach is primarily used to estimate GDP in the agricultural sector? Expenditure approach Income approach Production approach Consumption approach 5 / 5 Which of the following best defines Gross Value Added (GVA)? Total value of goods and services produced in an economy Value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption GDP minus net factor income from abroad Total income earned by residents of a country Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 2, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is a potential consequence of persistent high inflation in an economy? Increased purchasing power of consumers. Erosion of savings and fixed-income earnings. Higher real interest rates for borrowers. Appreciation of the domestic currency. 2 / 5 The ‘Monetary Policy Committee’ (MPC) in India is responsible for: Setting fiscal policy targets to control inflation. Deciding the policy interest rates to achieve inflation targets. Regulating the supply of essential commodities. Monitoring the balance of payments to stabilize inflation. 3 / 5 Which of the following tools is most effective in controlling cost-push inflation? Increasing the money supply to boost demand. Providing subsidies to reduce production costs. Raising interest rates to curb aggregate demand Reducing taxes on consumer goods. 4 / 5 Consider the following statements about ‘Core Inflation’: It excludes food and energy prices due to their volatility. It is less reliable than headline inflation for short-term policy decisions. It is often used by central banks to gauge underlying inflationary trends. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following is a characteristic of ‘Stagflation’? High economic growth with low inflation. High inflation, high unemployment, and stagnant growth. Low inflation with high unemployment. High inflation driven by increased exports. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz FEBRUARY 1, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following statements about the Phillips Curve is correct? It suggests a permanent trade-off between inflation and unemployment. It shows a short-run inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. It indicates that inflation is solely dependent on money supply growth. It is used to measure the impact of fiscal policy on inflation. 2 / 5 The concept of ‘Inflation Targeting’ adopted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) involves: Maintaining a fixed exchange rate to control inflation. Setting a specific inflation rate as the primary goal of monetary policy. Controlling inflation by regulating fiscal deficits. Adjusting tax rates to stabilize price levels. 3 / 5 Which of the following measures is likely to worsen inflationary pressures in an economy? Increasing the repo rate by the central bank. Reducing government expenditure on infrastructure projects. Lowering the cash reserve ratio (CRR) for banks. Imposing higher taxes on luxury goods. 4 / 5 The term ‘Headline Inflation’ refers to: Inflation rate excluding volatile items like food and fuel. The overall inflation rate based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI). Inflation caused by changes in production costs. Inflation measured using the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) only. 5 / 5 Which of the following is a primary cause of demand-pull inflation? Increase in production costs due to rising wages. Excessive growth in money supply leading to higher aggregate demand. Supply chain disruptions causing a shortage of goods. Depreciation of the domestic currency increases import costs. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 31, 2026 1 / 5 What is meant by "neutrino fog" in the context of dark matter detection? A layer of neutrinos that covers the universe, blocking dark matter signals. The scattering of neutrinos off nuclei, creating noise that interferes with dark matter detection. A phenomenon where neutrinos interact strongly with dark matter. A hypothetical condition where neutrinos absorb dark matter particles. 2 / 5 Match the following regarding the Basava National Awards of Karnataka: Year Awardee 2020-21 A. Veeranna Rajur 2021-22 B. Anand Teltumbde 2022-23 C. Bhiku Ramji Idate 2023-24 D. Dr. N.G. Mahadevappa Choose the correct option: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D 3 / 5 Consider the following statements about ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award’ It was established in 1969, to honor "Father of Indian Cinema" Dadasaheb Phalke, who directed India's first full-length feature film, Sati Sulochana (1913). Devika Rani was the first recipient of this award Recently, Mithun Chakraborty was selected for the year 2022. How many of the above statements are/ are Correct ? 1,2 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 4 / 5 Consider the following: Jenu kuruba. Kadu kuruba. Koraga. Which of the given above are particularly vulnerable tribes of Karnataka? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Consider the following statements: QMission Mausam aims to enhance India’s capacity in weather and climate science, research, and services. The mission is launched by Science and technology. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 30 2026 1 / 5 Who was the chairman of the commission tasked with crafting a new education policy for Karnataka state? Sarojini Mahishi Prof. M.G. Hegade Prof. Sukhdev Thorat Prof. Malhotra 2 / 5 How many of the following countries border Lebanon? Syria Egypt Israel Cyprus Jordan Only two Only three Only four All five 3 / 5 Which of the following are the erosional landforms formed by glaciers? Corrie Arete Kame Terraces Hanging valleys Select the correct answer using the code given below. Only one Only two Only three All four 4 / 5 Which of the following languages has been accorded classical language status in 2024 by the government of India? Rajasthani Marathi Gujarati Assamese Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 5 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Unlawful activities prevention act The law applies even if the offenses occur outside of India. The Central Government is granted extensive authority to designate organizations as terrorist entities. Both Indian citizens and foreign nationals can face charges. How many of the given statements are/are correct? Only one Only two All three None Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 29, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Pavagada Solar Park. The solar park is located in Pavagada taluk, Tumkur district, Karnataka. Pavagada solar park is the largest solar park in Asia. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 Consider the following countries Iceland Liechtenstein Norway Switzerland India How many of the above countries are the members of the European free trade agreement (EFTA)? 2 only 3 only 4 only All the above 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Special Economic Zones SEZ is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave, deemed to be foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariffs. Any private/public/joint sector or State Government or its agencies can set up SEZ. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Consider the following pairs Hydel project Rivers Tehri Dam Bhagirathi Bhakra Nangal Dam Sutlej River Hirakud Dam Narmada Idukki Dam Periyar River How many of the given pairs is/are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All the pairs are correct 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Statue of Equality: Ramanuja. Statue of Prosperity: Kempe Gowda Statue of Ahimsa: Rishabhanatha How many of the given above is/are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None of the above Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 28, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Global Biofuel alliance(GBA). India launched the GBA at the recently concluded UNFCCC conference of parties. International organizations such as World Bank, ADB, WEF are members of the alliance. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 Which of the following are the Conditions for Recognition as a State Party? If it wins three per cent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state. If it secures eight per cent of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly of the state. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Which of the following is not an invasive species in India? Mosquitofish Primrose willow Prosopis Chilensis Red fire ant 4 / 5 “Impatiens karuppusamy” a plant species was discovered in which of the following places Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Bandipur Tiger Reserve Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve Anamalai Tiger Reserve 5 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ): National Wildlife Action Plan (2002- 2016) provides for establishing ESZ under the Wildlife protection act. As per National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), land within 10 km of boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as ESZ. Which of the statements provided above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 27, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of mission LiFE Mission LiFE is an India-led global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment. It was launched by India at the UN Climate Change Conference COP-26. Which of the given above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 Consider the following pairs Kamlang Tiger Reserve: Arunachal Pradesh Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary: Assam Lemru elephant reserves: Chhattisgarh Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram How many of the given above are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four 3 / 5 Which of the following is incorrect in the context of Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme (IFWCS)? It was launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and it will act as the National forest certification scheme of India. It offers voluntary third-party certification. It provides market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices Applicable across the country, both in forest areas and plantations. 4 / 5 Is Operation “Kachhapa” recently seen in the news related to? Crackdown on illegal wildlife trade Mission to save turtle nesting sites Campaign to clean the beaches None of the above 5 / 5 Which of the following are the provisions/key features of the International treaty to protect the high seas? It is adopted under the framework of the United Nations Convention on Laws of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is a non-binding treaty. Under this treaty parties must assess potential environmental impacts of any planned activities beyond their jurisdictions. How many of the given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None of the above Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 25, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following is incorrect in the context of withdrawal of general consent to CBI (Central bureau of investigation)? Specific consent is needed for the CBI officials to have the power of police personnel when they enter that state Withdrawal is not applicable to cases in which the investigation is already in progress. The Supreme Court and High Courts can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without consent of the state Consent applies even in cases where someone has been caught red-handed taking a bribe 2 / 5 Arrange the following in chronological order of their establishment: Ramsar Convention Stockholm Convention Bonn Convention Vienna Convention Select the correct answer from the codes: 4-3-1-2 3-4-1-2 4-1-3-2 1-3-4-2 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 The act prohibits the conversion of a place of worship from one religious denomination to another. The act also applies to Monuments and sites protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. Which of the given above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Bharatiya Nyaya samhita 2023: It criminalizes sexual intercourse with a woman by deceitful means or making false promises. For the first time, community service is given as one of the punishments for petty offences. It contains the definition of organized crime. How many of the given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None of the above 5 / 5 Justice Bhaktavatsala commission is related to ........ Reforms in University exams OBC quota in local bodies Mahadayi river project Cauvery river dispute Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 24, 2026 1 / 5 How many of the following are correct about Socialism in the Indian context? Socialism deals with principles which envisage the establishment of a society where all individuals enjoy equality in different walks of life – economic, political, social, etc. Indian style of socialism is a democratic socialism where both public and private enterprises function together towards socialist goals. Socialism in India aims to end inequality of wealth, and the abolition of private property The term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. 2 / 5 Which of the following is included in the selection committee under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023? Prime Minister. Leader of Opposition. Chief justice of India. How many of the given above is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None of the above 3 / 5 Which of the following organizations are not under or not related to the Department of Economic affairs (DEA) ? Finance Commission. Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Enforcement Directorate 4 / 5 Consider the following ministries under the Union Government. Health Agriculture and Allied activities Ministry of Home Affairs Rural Development Arrange the following ministries in descending order of budget allocation in New Union budget 2024-25? 4-2-3-1 3-2-4-1 3-1-2-4 3-2-1-4 5 / 5 Consider the following items with respect to the New budget 2024-25 of the Union government. Borrowings and Others Non tax receipts Corporation tax Income Tax GST and Other Tax Arrange the following items in ascending order of receipts 2-1-5-3-4 3-2-1-4-5 2-3-5-4-1 3-2-5-4-1 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 23, 2026 1 / 5 I.R. Coelho case (2007) is related to Re-Promulgation of ordinances Judicial review of 9th schedule Decriminalization of homosexuality None of the above 2 / 5 Consider the following: Rules of procedure in Parliament Elections to Parliament and state legislatures Goods and Services Tax Council Which if the above can be amended by a simple majority in the parliament? 1 only All of the above 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of amendment procedure of the constitution The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them. There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of a constitutional amendment bill. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Which among the following are the merits of the parliamentary system of government? Harmony Between Legislature and Executive Separation of Powers Ready Alternative Government Wide Representation Select the correct Ans: 1 , 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 5 / 5 How many of the following are the features of the federal system of government? Dual Government Written Constitution Supremacy of the Constitution Independent judiciary Select the correct Ans: Only one Only two Only three All four Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 22, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following are implied by the term “equality before law”? The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person. The similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated. The like should be treated alike without any discrimination Select the correct Ans: 1 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of writ jurisdiction of supreme court The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights Parliament can empower any other court to issue these writs. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Arrange the following preventive detention laws in the chronological order of their enactment National Security Act Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act(COFEPOSA) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act Select the correct Ans: 2 – 3 – 1 2 – 1 – 3 3 – 1 – 2 3 – 2 – 1 4 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of six rights under Article 19 The six rights are protected against both state action and private individuals. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on these rights, but only on the specific grounds outlined in Article 19. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 Which among the following identified the ‘creamy layer’ among the OBC’s? Ram Nandan Committee Kalelkar Committee Rohini Commission Rane Committee Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 21, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following Dignity of the individual. Unity and integrity of the nation. Absence of special privileges to any section. Which of the above are assured by the term ‘Fraternity’? 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Fundamental rights: The fundamental rights strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society. They are sacrosanct. Their application to the members of armed forces can be restricted or abrogated by the President. How many of the above are correct? Only one Only two All three None 3 / 5 How many of the following rights have been conferred to the citizens of India and denied to the aliens? Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature. Right to freedom of speech and expression. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 4 / 5 Consider the following statements Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of preamble: The Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition on its powers. The Parliament has no powers to amend the Preamble. Preamble is justiciable. How many of the above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 20, 2026 1 / 5 Who among the following has the authority to revise the Hindi translation of the constitutional amendment if there’s a difference in meaning? President Parliament Prime minister Minister of Law and Justice 2 / 5 How many of the following are correct about Socialism in the Indian context? Socialism deals with principles which envisage the establishment of a society where all individuals enjoy equality in different walks of life – economic, political, social, etc. Indian style of socialism is a democratic socialism where both public and private enterprises function together towards socialist goals. Socialism in India aims to end inequality of wealth, and the abolition of private property The term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 3 / 5 With reference to the Indian constitution, who commented “That is exactly the kind of Constitution Mahatma Gandhi did not want and did not envisage”? T. Prakasam H.V. Kamath Lokanath Misra K. Hanumanthaiya 4 / 5 Consider the following: Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes. Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts How many of the above were amended/added during the First Amendment Act, 1951? Only one Only two All three None 5 / 5 This act introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India. Which of the following acts passed during British India has been discussed in the above passage? Indian Council Act 1909 Government of India Act 1919 Government of India Act 1935 Indian Council Act 1892 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 19, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following portfolios Prime Minister Communication. Scientific Research. How many of the above were the portfolios held by Jawaharlal Nehru in the First Cabinet of Free India? Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 How many of the following statements about the regulating act of 1773 are correct? The act designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor General of Bengal’. Establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta. The act distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. The Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of elections to the constituent assembly Community representatives were elected by their respective community members from the provincial legislative assembly. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Consider the following functions performed by the constituent assembly Ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth. Adopted the national flag. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India. Which of the above functions were performed before India got Independence? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Provincial Constitution Committee: Sardar Patel Minorities Sub-Committee: H.C. Mukherjee Steering Committee: Dr. Rajendra Prasad How many of the above are incorrectly matched? Only one Only two All three None Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 18, 2026 1 / 5 Who won the 2023 Nobel Peace Prize? Greta Thunberg Narges Mohammadi Malala Yousafzai António Guterres 2 / 5 Which film won the Best Picture award at the 2023 Academy Awards (Oscars)? Everything Everywhere All at Once The Fabelmans Avatar: The Way of Water Top Gun: Maverick 3 / 5 Which tech company recently achieved a $3 trillion market valuation? Google Apple Microsoft Amazon 4 / 5 What is the name of the mission launched by India to study the Sun in 2023? Chandrayaan-3 Aditya-L1 Surya-Mission AstroSun-1 5 / 5 Which country hosted the 2023 G20 Summit? India Brazil Indonesia Italy Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 17, 2026 1 / 5 With reference to inheritance laws in ancient India, consider the following statements: In the early Vedic period, property was primarily inherited by sons. The Mitakshara school recognised the concept of “birthright” in ancestral property. Under Dayabhaga law, property could be divided only after the death of the father. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the accounts of the two Chinese pilgrims? Fa-Hien recorded that people in the Gupta period rarely resorted to capital punishment. Hiuen Tsang recorded the socio-economic decline in India after the fall of Harsha. Both travellers wrote in Sanskrit. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 With reference to the visit of Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang), consider the following statements: He visited India during the reign of Harsha. His account “Si-Yu-Ki” gives detailed information on Nalanda University. He travelled to India mainly for administrative studies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Consider the following: Rise of Tantric traditions Revival of Mimamsa school Development of Bhakti philosophy in South India Which of the above developments occurred during the Post-Gupta period? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 With reference to Post-Gupta philosophy, consider the following statements: The Nyaya school under Udayana provided strong logical arguments for the existence of God. Buddhism in India during this period shifted towards Vajrayana and declined in the Gangetic plains. Jain philosophy stagnated and did not produce major thinkers in this period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 16, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following developments took place during the Post-Gupta period? Growth of regional temple styles like Nagara and Dravida Compilation of Smriti literature including works of Vishnu and Yajnavalkya Emergence of Shaivism and Vaishnavism as powerful sects Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 With reference to society in the Post-Gupta period, consider the following statements: Sati practice became more common among upper castes. The caste system became more rigid with the rise of many sub-castes. Inter-caste marriages increased due to tribal integration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Dynasty — Capital Pushyabhuti (Thaneshwar) — Harsha Maitrakas — Valabhi Vakatakas — Kanchipuram Which of the pairs are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 With reference to the Post-Gupta period, consider the following statements: Land grants to Brahmins and temples increased significantly, leading to the rise of semi-independent chiefs. Feudalism began to emerge as a dominant feature of the political system. Guilds (Shrenis) reached their peak power during this period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Regarding the iconography in the three schools of art, consider the following statements: The Mathura School used the wheel (chakra) and lion as major symbols of Buddha. The Gandhara School preferred symbolic representation of Buddha instead of human form. The Amaravati School used both symbolic and anthropomorphic representations. Which of the statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 1 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 15, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following features is/are associated with the Amaravati School of Art? Use of white limestone High-relief sculpting with dynamic movement Strong influence of Greek and Roman styles 1 and 2 only 1 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Consider the following pairs: School — Feature Gandhara — Use of grey schist Mathura — Predominance of narrative reliefs Amaravati — Elaborate depiction of Jataka tales Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 With reference to the Mathura School of Art, consider the following statements: It developed using red sandstone from the Sikri quarries. Buddha images here are more Indianised with a spiritual expression. It remained confined to Buddhist themes and avoided Brahmanical deities. Which of the statements above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 With reference to the Gandhara School of Art, consider the following statements: It shows a strong influence of Greco-Roman artistic traditions. Buddha is mostly shown in human form with wavy hair and a muscular body. Use of white marble is a distinctive feature of Gandhara art. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following is associated with the Gupta art style? Soft features and spiritual expression in sculpture Development of Nagara style temples Bronze images of Buddha with Gupta drapery style 1 and 2 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 14, 2026 1 / 5 With reference to social changes after the Mauryas, consider the following pairs: Group — Feature Shrenis — Worked as organized guilds controlling production Gahapatis — Large land-owning householders Nigamas — Urban centers and market towns Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Which of the following features is/are associated with Post-Mauryan society? Increased use of Sanskrit in inscriptions Spread of Mahayana Buddhism Decline of long-distance maritime trade 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 With reference to the Gupta administration, consider the following statements: The Gupta kings adopted the title Maharajadhiraja. Land grants to Brahmins and officials increased during Gupta rule. Guilds (Shrenis) completely disappeared under the Guptas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Which of the following inscriptions is associated with the achievements of Samudragupta? Allahabad Pillar Inscription Junagadh Rock Inscription Hathigumpha Inscription Nasik Cave Inscription 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Gupta Ruler — Contribution Chandragupta I — Founder of Gupta Empire Samudragupta — Conqueror of South India Chandragupta II — Defeated Shaka-Kshatrapas Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 13, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following books was written during the Gupta period? Arthashastra Mudrarakshasa Kumārasambhavam Indica 2 / 5 Which one of the following is correctly matched? Gupta Period Structure — Location Dashavatara Temple — Ajanta Udayagiri Caves — Madhya Pradesh Nalanda University — Odisha Vishnu Temple — Mathura 3 / 5 With reference to society in the Gupta Age, consider the following statements: The practice of sati increased and is mentioned in several inscriptions. Varna hierarchy became more rigid compared to earlier periods. Land grants to Brahmins strengthened the Brahmanical order. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 The famous Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar was originally erected by: Samudragupta Chandragupta II Skandagupta Kumaragupta I 5 / 5 Which of the following developments of the Gupta period indicate the rise of “urban decay”? Sharp decline in long-distance trade Fewer gold coins in later Gupta phase Increase in land grants leading to ruralization Disappearance of guild-based industry 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 12, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: Satavahanas used Prakrit as their official language. Their royal inscriptions were written in Brahmi script. They issued portrait coins for the first time in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Which of the following terms in Satavahana inscriptions denote land grants? Agrahara Brahmadeya Nikhela 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 / 5 Which inscription gives detailed information about Gautamiputra Satakarni’s achievements? Hathigumpha inscription Nasik inscription of his mother Gautami Balashri Junagadh inscription Besnagar inscription 4 / 5 Consider the following statements: Satavahanas claimed to be Brahmins by caste. They patronized both Vedic rituals and Buddhism. Their capital shifted between Pratishthana and Amaravati. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 With reference to the social structure in Post-Mauryan India, consider the following statements: The rise of foreign rulers led to the emergence of new mixed castes like Yavanas and Kambojas. Guilds (Shrenis) began to function as corporate bodies regulating trade and profession. Sati became a widespread practice across all regions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 11, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following inscriptions provides information about Pushyamitra Shunga’s military achievements? Junagadh Inscription Hathigumpha Inscription Ayodhya Inscription of Dhanadeva Nasik Inscription 2 / 5 With reference to Brahmin dynasties after the Mauryas, consider the following statements: They promoted Vedic rituals and Sanskrit learning. They contributed to the decline of Buddhist institutions. They restricted foreign trade with the Romans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 With reference to the Satavahana dynasty, consider the following statements: They issued coins with bilingual legends in Prakrit and Tamil. Gautamiputra Satakarni defeated the Shaka ruler Nahapana. Satavahana coins were mostly made of silver. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Satavahana King — Contribution Gautamiputra Satakarni — Restrained the power of Shakas Vashishthiputra Pulumavi — Expanded trade with the Romans Hala — Author of Gathasaptasati Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following sites is/are associated with Satavahana rule? Amaravati Nasik Junnar Karle 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 10, 2026 1 / 5 Which of the following foreign groups ruled parts of India after the Mauryan Empire? Indo-Greeks Shakas Parthians Kushanas 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 / 5 With reference to the Shunga dynasty, consider the following statements: Pushyamitra Shunga founded the Shunga dynasty after assassinating the last Mauryan ruler. Shungas are credited with the revival of Brahmanical orthodoxy. Shungas patronized the construction of the Sanchi Stupa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Which of the following correctly describes the Kanva dynasty? They were Shaka governors who ruled from Mathura They replaced the Shungas and ruled from Pataliputra They were Brahmin rulers who came from Ujjain They ruled contemporary to the Nandas 4 / 5 With reference to the Vakatakas, consider the following statements: They were contemporaries of the Gupta Empire. They were Brahmin rulers who supported Vedic rituals. They patronized the Ajanta cave paintings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following correctly differentiates the Shungas from the Kanvas? Shungas followed Buddhism while Kanvas revived Brahmanism. Shungas ruled longer than Kanvas. Kanvas ruled from Vidisha while Shungas ruled from Ujjain. Kanvas expanded aggressively while Shungas remained weak Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 9, 2026 1 / 5 With reference to the Indo-Greek rulers, consider the following statements: The Heliodorus pillar at Vidisha was erected during the reign of an Indo-Greek ruler. Menander (Milinda) converted to Buddhism and held discussions with Nagasena. Indo-Greeks introduced gold coins for the first time in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Which of the following rulers introduced the Saka era in India? Kanishka Rudradaman I Nahapana Kushana Kadphises 3 / 5 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Foreign Ruler – Contribution Kujula Kadphises – Foundation of Kushana dynasty Nahapana – Defeated by Gautamiputra Satakarni Menander – First to issue Indian-style coins 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding Kanishka: He convened the Fourth Buddhist Council. His reign marked the rise of Mahayana Buddhism. His empire extended up to Central Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following inscriptions is associated with the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I? Allahabad Pillar Inscription Nasik Cave Inscription Hathigumpha Inscription Junagadh Rock Inscription Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 8, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements about the Sangam Age: The earliest Tamil literature was compiled during this period. The Sangam Age witnessed the rule of Chera, Chola and Pandya kingdoms. Tolkappiyam is considered the oldest extant Tamil grammar text. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following pairs: WORK THEME 1. Silappadikaram Life of Kovalan and Kannagi 2. Manimekalai Exploits of Cheran Senguttuvan 3. Pattinappalai Description of Kaveripattanam Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Which of the following is/are features of Sangam society? Presence of Brahmadeya land grants Hereditary caste-based occupational groups Existence of assemblies like Manram and Sabha 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only 4 / 5 Which of the following sources provide information about the Sangam Age? Greek accounts of Megasthenes Ashokan inscriptions Tamil epics Silappadikaram and Manimekalai 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 In the context of Sangam Age economy, which of the following is/are correct? Roman trade was a major source of revenue. Use of gold and silver coins was common. Inland trade was carried through well-developed river networks. 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 7, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: Ajatashatru moved the Magadhan capital to Pataliputra. Pataliputra became the center of later Mauryan administration Pataliputra was located on the banks of the Yamuna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding the rise of Magadha: Geographical advantages included fertile plains and mineral resources. Control over rivers and trade routes strengthened political power. Magadha had little interaction with neighboring kingdoms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding Magadhan administration: The king was assisted by a council of ministers. Provincial governors were called Janapadadhyaksha. The king had no control over taxation Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Consider the following statements about Magadhan military: The army included infantry, cavalry, elephants, and chariots. Magadha pioneered the use of war elephants in India. Naval forces were the backbone of Magadhan expansion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding Magadhan economy: Agriculture was the mainstay of the economy. Magadha controlled important trade routes along the Ganges. Magadha used a uniform coinage system introduced by Chandragupta Maurya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 6, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements about the Mauryan Empire: Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the Nanda dynasty. Kautilya’s Arthashastra guided the administration Ashoka was the first Mauryan ruler to conquer Magadha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding Mahapadma Nanda: He was the founder of the Nanda dynasty. He established a centralized administration in Magadha. He was known for his patronage of Buddhism and Jainism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Magadhan Empire emerged around the 6th century BCE. Bimbisara was one of its earliest rulers. Magadha was located in present-day Bihar and Jharkhand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 4 / 5 Consider the following statements: Jainism preaches strict vegetarianism for all followers. Buddhism allows monks to consume meat if not intentionally killed for them. Both religions originated in Magadha region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Consider the following statements: Jainism and Buddhism emerged in the 6th century BCE in northern India. Both rejected the authority of Vedas Both allowed the worship of multiple gods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 5, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: Ashoka was a patron of Buddhism and built stupas across India. Chandragupta Maurya adopted Jainism later in life. Both rulers encouraged the spread of their respective religions outside India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 2 / 5 Consider the following statements about Jainism: Mahavira emphasized asceticism and meditation. Anekantavada teaches non-absolutism. Jainism allows caste-based discrimination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Consider the following statements: Buddha was born in Lumbini (Nepal). Mahavira was a contemporary of Buddha. Both propagated the doctrine of non-violence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Which of the following are Jain practices aimed at spiritual liberation? Asceticism Meditation Strict vegetarianism Worship of Tirthankaras Select the correct answer: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 only 5 / 5 Which Buddhist text is considered the earliest collection of Buddha’s teachings? Tripitaka Mahabharata Vedas Bhagavad Gita Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 4, 2026 1 / 5 The Buddhist concept of ‘Middle Path’ refers to: Extreme asceticism Avoiding both extreme luxury and extreme asceticism Worship of multiple gods Reincarnation 2 / 5 With reference to religion during the Vedic period, consider the following statements: Indra and Agni were prominent deities in the Rig Vedic age. Prajapati became the supreme god in the Later Vedic period. Idol worship and temple building were common practices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Which of the following developments occurred during the Later Vedic period? Emergence of hereditary monarchy Development of large kingdoms like Kuru and Panchala. Decline of the importance of women in social and religious life. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 only 4 / 5 Consider the following statements: Sabha was an assembly of learned priests. Samiti represented the general tribal assembly. Vidatha was a center for religious, social, and military functions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Text Content 1. Rig Veda Hymns in praise of gods 2. Yajur Veda Ritual formulas 3. Sama Veda Melodies and chants 4. Atharva Veda Magical charms and spells Select the correct answer: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 only Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 3, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements about the Later Vedic period: The use of iron became widespread. Agriculture became the main occupation. Tribal assemblies lost much of their importance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 / 5 Which of the following statements best describes the political organization of the Rig Vedic period? The king ruled with the help of a large bureaucracy. The sabha and samiti were popular assemblies assisting the king. The kingship was hereditary and despotic. There was no concept of state during this period. 3 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding the Rig Vedic society: Society was largely pastoral and semi-nomadic. Women composed hymns and participated in religious assemblies. The Varna system based on birth had been fully established Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 Consider the following statements: Dholavira had one of the world’s earliest water conservation systems. A signboard with Harappan symbols was discovered there. It was located on the banks of the Ghaggar River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Consider the following statements: Lothal had a dockyard connecting it to the Sabarmati River. Chanhudaro was known for bead-making industries. Kalibangan provides the earliest evidence of ploughed fields. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 2, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Indus people worshipped trees and animals Seals depict a deity seated in yogic posture, surrounded by animals. Temples have been found in almost all major Harappan cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Harappan economy was mainly based on agriculture and trade. Barley was the principal crop cultivated. Rice was unknown to the Harappans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 / 5 Consider the following statements: Horse bones have been found in large numbers in Harappan sites. Copper was the most commonly used metal. Iron objects have been found from several Harappan layers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 4 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Indus script has been deciphered by archaeologists. The script was mostly written from right to left. The language of the Harappans belonged to the Dravidian family Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 5 / 5 Consider the following statements: Fire altars have been discovered from Kalibangan and Lothal. A granary was discovered at Harappa. The Great Bath was found at Lothal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz JANUARY 1, 2026 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: The Indus people were the first to use burnt bricks for construction. The houses were built along narrow winding lanes. Drains were covered and connected to larger channels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 only 2 / 5 Which one of the following sites provides evidence of a dockyard during the Indus Valley Civilization? Harappa Mohenjo-Daro Lothal Kalibangan 3 / 5 Which of the following statements about Bhimbetka is correct? It shows the earliest evidence of agriculture in India. It contains prehistoric rock paintings. It was a Neolithic village site. It is associated with Harappan urban centres. 4 / 5 Domestication of animals and cultivation of plants began during: Palaeolithic Age Mesolithic Age Neolithic Age Chalcolithic Age 5 / 5 The Mesolithic Age in India is primarily characterized by: Use of polished tools and pottery Use of microliths and semi-nomadic life Beginning of iron smelting Emergence of urban centres Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 14, 2025 1 / 5 A tap drips at a rate of one drop/sec. 60 drops make 10 ml. the number of liters wasted in 300 days is ? 43200000 ml 432000 ml 43200 ml 4320 ml 2 / 5 Three students are chosen at random from a class of 30 students having 18 boys and 12 girls. Probability of selecting exactly 2 boys is greater than probability of selecting exactly 2 girls Probability of selecting all boys is 48/145 Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Consider the following statements about a fair die roll: The probability of getting an even number or a prime number is 5/6 The probability of getting a number greater than 3 and even is 1/6 The probability of not getting a prime number is 1/2 Select the correct answer: 1 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 5 A bag contains Rs. 90 coins in the denominations of 50 paise, 25 paise and 10 paise. If coins of 50 paise, 25 paise and 10 paise are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5, then the number of 25 paise coins in the bag is 80 120 100 135 5 / 5 A vessel contains 20 litres of acid. 4 litres of acid is taken out of the vessel and replaced by the same quantity of water. The next 4 litres of the mixture are withdrawn and again the vessel is filled with the same quantity of acid left in the vessel with the quantity of acid initially in the vessel is : 4 : 5 4 : 25 16 : 25 3.2 : 5 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 13, 2025 1 / 5 A cube is painted red on all its faces and then, it is cut into 64 identical smaller cubes. How many of these smaller cubes have exactly two faces painted red? 12 16 24 32 2 / 5 Mohan gets 3 marks for each correct sum and loses 2 marks for each wrong sum. He attempts 30 sums and obtains 40 marks. The number of sums solved correctly is 15 20 25 10 3 / 5 A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17 Instead, he divided the number by 8/17 His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given number was : 64 289 136 225 4 / 5 How many numbers between 400 and 800 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6? 7 8 9 10 5 / 5 When 335 is added to 5A7, the result is 8B2. 8B2 is divisible by 3. What is the largest possible value of A? 8 2 1 4 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 12, 2025 1 / 5 Unit digit in (264)102 + (264)103 is : 0 4 6 8 2 / 5 What is the average of the first six odd numbers each of which is divisible by 7? 42 43 47 49 3 / 5 A and B together can do a piece of work in 16 days and B and C together can do the same work in 24 days. From the start A and B worked for 4 days and 7 days respectively,when A left the work then C joined the work and he worked for 23 days and completed the work. Then find how many days will C complete the work alone? 16 days 8 days 32 days 72 days 4 / 5 If out of 10 selected students for an examination, 3 were of 20 years age, 4 of 21 and 3 of 22 years, the average age of the group is 22 year 21 year 21.5 year 20 year 5 / 5 A number when divided by 119, leaves a remainder of 19. If it is divided by 17, it will leave a remainder of: 10 2 19 7 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 11, 2025 1 / 5 The radius of a road roller is 1.68 m and its length is 4.5 m. This roller can level 72% of a surface in 150 revolutions. Find the area of the surface. 1500 m2 9800 m2 7700 m2 9900 m2 2 / 5 Aryan invested ` 5200 at 4%, 6% and 8% per annum simple interest. At the end of the year, he got the same interest in all the three cases, find the money invested at 4%? 2500 2400 2800 3000 3 / 5 The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 8% and 5%, respectively. By how much percentage will the area of the rectangle increase? 13.4% 15.4% 12.4% 16.4% 4 / 5 A dishonest merchant sells goods at a 12.5% loss on the cost price, but uses 28 g weight instead of 36 g. What is his percentage profit or loss? 6.25% loss 12.5% gain 18.75% gain 10.5% loss 5 / 5 Three numbers which are coprime to one another are such that the product of the first and the third number is 703 and of the first two is 551.The sum of the three numbers is : 75 81 85 89 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 10, 2025 1 / 5 X is a positive integer, which is a product of two prime numbers. Which of the following cannot be a value of X? 46 91 143 153 2 / 5 A bill for ₹4000 is paid in the denominations of ₹100, ₹50, and ₹20 notes with each denomination not being necessarily used. 60 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: 20 notes of ₹100 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of ₹50 and ₹20. 30 notes of ₹50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of ₹100 and ₹20. 50 notes of ₹20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of ₹100 and ₹50. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above 3 / 5 A, B and C are working together. All of them go to the office together with speeds in the ratio 7 :5 : 4. If in total they take 332 minutes (sum of the individual time taken) to cover the individual distance (which is same for all), then find the time taken by B to cover his distance? 80 140 112 224 4 / 5 74 English Books, 56 Chemistry books and 82 Kannada books have to be stacked topic wise. How many books will be there in each stack so that each stack will have the same height too ? 24 12 6 2 5 / 5 The least number to be subtracted from 35478 to get a number which is exactly divisible by 84 is 35 42 30 28 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 9, 2025 1 / 5 How many of the following are geo-engineering techniques that would help to counter climate change? Marine Cloud Brightening. Space-based Reflectors. Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage (BECCS). Stratospheric Aerosol Injection. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 2 / 5 Consider the following statements related to Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) It is an international legally binding convention which recognized for the first time, the need for conservation of biological diversity for the welfare of humankind. The agreement covers all ecosystems, species as well as genetic resources. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Which of the following are Ozone Depleting Substances listed under Montreal Protocol? Halons. Chlorofluorocarbon. Hydrofluorocarbons. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two All three None 4 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Biodiversity heritage site State 1. Ameenpur Lake a. West Bengal 2. Tonglu b. Telangana. 3. Gogabeel Lake c. Bihar 4. Kilkila Valley d. Madhya Pradesh 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 5 / 5 Which of the following statements are correct in the context of ocean acidification? Ocean acidification leads to an increase in the concentration of carbonic acid, bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. Due to ocean acidification saturation horizon of calcium carbonate rises vertically in the water column Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 8, 2025 1 / 5 Avaana Sustainability Fund is an fund developed by SIDBI NABARD SBI All of the above 2 / 5 T.N Godavarman Thirumulpad v/s Union of India case is related to Eco-sensitive zone National green tribunal Definition of Forest Coastal Regulation Zone 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) was held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC) was launched in CMS COP 14. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Melanochlamys draupadi This is a new marine species of head-shield sea slug discovered from West Bengal and Odisha coast. Sea slug is a common name for marine gastropods that have an external shell. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 The Site supports the livelihoods of more than 6,000 households, who are engaged in activities such as fishing, agriculture, shrimp aquaculture, bivalve shell mining and salt production. In the estuary, farmers practice traditional farming to grow a salt-tolerant rice called “kagga”, which is one of the specialities of the region. Which of the following Ramsar sites does the above paragraph describe? Chilika Lake Bhitarkanika Mangroves Aghanashini Estuary Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 7, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of City-Specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan India's First City-Specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP) launched in Bengaluru. The ZCBA project was launched by World Resources Institute (WRI) in 2021 along with its global partners. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Greenwashing Green Rinsing is when a company regularly changes its ESG (Environmental, Social, Governance) targets before achieving them. Greenlighting is highlighting a particularly green feature of a business's products or activities to draw attention away from its environmentally harmful actions. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Which of the following situations are correct in the context of E-Waste (Management) Amendment Rules, 2024? Exchange price of EPR certificate to be between the highest and lowest prices fixed by the central pollution control board. The Central Government can establish one or more platforms for exchange or transfer of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) certificates. Extended timelines for manufacturers, producers, refurbishers, or recyclers to file returns or reports, allowing for a maximum extension of one year. Clarification on exemptions related to the reduction of harmful substances. Select the correct Ans: 1 , 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above 4 / 5 When does Plastic Overshoot Day occur in India according to the Plastic Overshoot Day 2024 report released by Earth Action? March 15 April 23 July 5 September 5 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs State of Global Climate Report : World Meteorological Organization World Energy Transitions Outlook: : International Renewable Energy Agency More Chilling Than Ever: Food and Agricultural organization Which of the above are correctly matched? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Your score isThe average score is 40% 0% Restart quiz November 6, 2025 1 / 5 ‘Climate Promise 2025’ is an initiative of UNDP UNEP IUCN WWF 2 / 5 Which among the following are the technologies for Carbon Dioxide Removal? Afforestation/Reforestation and Soil Carbon Sequestration Enhanced Weathering Ocean fertilization Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage. Select the correct Ans: 1 , 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above 3 / 5 Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Green Credit Rules? Forest Departments of States are required to identify degraded land parcels under their control to enhance green cover. Identified land parcels must be free from encumbrances and should be at least 2 hectares in size. The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change notified methodology for Calculation of Green Credits. Select the correct Ans: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above 4 / 5 In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration? Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams Depleted oil and gas reservoirs Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? Bretton Woods Conference Montreal Protocol Kyoto Protocol Nagoya Protocol Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 5, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following: Achanakmar – Amarkantak Dibru-Saikhowa Cold Desert Panna Which of the above are not recognized internationally under the Man and Biosphere Reserve program? 1 and 4 only All of the above 2 , 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 2 / 5 Which of the following agencies is responsible for preparing the ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ in consultation with local communities in India? Gram Sabha in coordination with Zilla Parishad District Collectorate Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) 3 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Ramsar sites State 1. Khijadiya Wildlife Sanctuary a. Gujarat 2. Sultanpur National Park b. Maharashtra. 3. Bhoj Wetlands c. Haryana 4. Nandur Madhameshwar d. Madhya Pradesh 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 4 / 5 Which among the following are identified as potential sites for the reintroduction of Cheetah? Kuno-Palpur Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary Madhav National Park. Select the correct Ans: 1 , 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above 5 / 5 How many of the following are correct in the context of biodiversity hotspots? It must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat There are 2 biodiversity hotspots present in India It must contain at least 1500 species of vascular plants as endemics. Western ghats are part of the biodiversity hotspot Select the correct Ans: Only one Only two Only three All four Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 4, 2025 1 / 5 Which of the following states has shown a maximum increase in the forest cover according to the State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021? Andhra Pradesh Telangana Odisha Karnataka 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of forest cover in India The Tree cover is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country. Both the tree cover and forest cover have shown increase compared to previous assessment. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers National Parks State 1. Blackbuck National Park a. Haryana 2. Kalesar National Park b. Gujarat. 3. Khirganga National Park c. Madhya Pradesh 4. Fossil National Park d. Himachal Pradesh 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 4 / 5 Arrange the following environmental laws in the chronological order of their enactment Biological Diversity Act Wildlife Protection Act Environment (Protection) Act Select the correct Ans: 2 – 3 – 1 2 – 1 – 3 3 – 1 – 2 3 – 2 – 1 5 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of rainforests More than half of the world’s animals live in the rainforest. Most of the rainforests are found near the equator and are absent in the temperate regions. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 3, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following statements A poikilotherm is an animal which regulates its body temperature in accordance with the temperature of its surroundings. Platypus is a mammal which lays eggs instead of giving birth to their young. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 How many of the following realms are present in India? Nearctic Realm Palearctic Realm Neotropical Realm Malayan Realm Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Tropical region: There are no unfavorable seasons in the tropics. Continued favorable environment has helped tropical organisms to gain more niche specialization. More solar energy is available in tropics. This promotes higher productivity and increased biodiversity. These areas have undergone frequent glaciation in the past. How many of the above are reasons for the tropics having high biodiversity? Only one Only two All three None 4 / 5 Which of the following are implied by the term “endemic species”? They are those species which are found exclusively in a particular area. They are species whose numbers are diminishing to a level that they might face extinction. These species are not the natural inhabitants of a region but are introduced from outside Select the correct Ans: 1 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 5 / 5 “Underwater ecosystems teeming with life thrive along coastlines, where large, fast-growing seaweeds create dense, towering structures. These underwater jungles provide crucial habitats for a diverse array of marine species, including fish, invertebrates, and mammals. The canopies formed by these plants offer shelter and breeding grounds, while the ocean floor beneath supports various organisms that contribute to the ecosystem's health.” Which of the following is referred to in the above passage? Mangrove forests Kelp forest Sargassum Coral Reef Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 2, 2025 1 / 5 “If rain forests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff , subsoil percolation and evaporation. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. 2 / 5 Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? Construction of dams and barrages on rivers Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 3 / 5 Consider the following Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only. Double-humped camels are naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros are naturally found in India only. Which of the above are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 4 / 5 If you wish to observe Sea Buckthorn species in their natural habitat, which of the following regions should you visit? Himalayan region, such as the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti Tropical evergreen forests of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Banni grasslands in the salt marshes of the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat Arid and semi-arid regions of western Rajasthan and the Thar Desert 5 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Wildlife Sanctuary State 1. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary a. Maharashtra 2. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary b. Delhi. 3. Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary c. Goa. 4. Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary d. Arunachal Pradesh. 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – a , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- a 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz November 1, 2025 1 / 5 In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantages of bioremediation techniques? It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. How many of the above is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? Sand deserts of north-west India Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir Salt marshes of western Gujarat Western Ghats. 3 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Biosphere Reserves State 1. Nokrek a. Himachal Pradesh 2. Seshachalam b. Meghalaya. 3. Dibru-Saikhowa c. Andhra Pradesh. 4. Cold Desert d. Assam. 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – a , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- a 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 4 / 5 Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest? Coastal Andhra Pradesh South-West Bengal Southern Saurashtra Andaman and Nicobar Islands 5 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers. Species IUCN category 1. Mahogany Trees a. Near Threatened 2. Saiga antelope b. Endangered. 3. East Pacific green turtle c. Critically Endangered. 4. Kondana Rat d. Vulnerable. 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – a , 4- c 1 – b , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- a 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 31, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Blue-finned Mahseer: Cauvery River Irrawaddy Dolphin: Chambal River Rusty-spotted Cat: Eastern Ghats How many of the above are incorrectly matched? Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the above statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Consider the following Sea cow Sea horse Sea lion. How many of the above are mammals? Only one Only two All three None 5 / 5 Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in how many of the following ways: Soil formation Prevention of soil erosion Recycling of waste Pollination of crops Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 30, 2025 1 / 5 Sunkoshi River which was recently cleaned under the PLEASE (Plastic Free Rivers and Seas of South Asia) program is located in ? Bhutan Nepal Bangladesh India 2 / 5 Consider the following pairs: 2025–2034 : Decade of Action for Cryospheric Sciences 2024–2033: International Decade of Sciences for Sustainable Development 2021–2030: United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development How many of the above are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None 3 / 5 Consider the following: Hoolock gibbon Namdapha flying squirrel Golden Langur Lion Tailed Macaque Which of the above are found only in the North eastern region? Only one Only two Only three All four 4 / 5 Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was held at New Delhi Gurgaon Majuli Chennai 5 / 5 Who among the following was not awarded the champions of the earth award in 2023? Josefina Belmonte Ellen MacArthur Foundation Jose Manuel Molle Council of Scientific & Industrial Research India Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 29, 2025 1 / 5 With reference to the Miombo Forest, which of the following statements are correct? The Miombo is a biome encompassing tropical and subtropical grasslands, bushlands, and savannahs. It is a vast South American dryland forest ecosystem covering nearly 2.7 million square kilometres. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 With reference to the Compressed Biogas, consider the following statements: Compressed Biogas and Compressed Natural Gas have the same calorific value. Sustainable Alternative to Affordable Transport (SATAT) initiative was launched in 2018 to promote the Compressed Biogas (CBG) technology. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 The “Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ campaign” is an initiative of ….. Ministry of Social justice and empowerment. Ministry of Science and technology. Ministry of Women and Child development. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 4 / 5 Which of the following is not a method of extracting biomass-based energy ? Bagasse based cogeneration in sugar mills Anaerobic Digestion Gasification None of the above 5 / 5 With regard to the Pachamrit of India’s climate action, which of the following are correct? Reach 500GWNon-fossil energy capacity by 2030. 75 percent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030. Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now to 2030. Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels. Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2050. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 28, 2025 1 / 5 In the following questions, you will find two statements identified as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Please read the statements carefully and select the correct option. Assertion (A): Landfill ‘capping’ involves covering the waste in the landfill with soil. Reason (R): Landfill ‘capping’ has been mandated by the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct. 2 / 5 Mycofiltration refers to: The use of fungi to decompose organic waste in landfills. The process of using fungal mycelium to filter and treat contaminated water. The application of fungi in agricultural practices to enhance soil fertility. The use of fungi in food production for fermentation processes. 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Chlorofluorocarbons: Chlorofluorocarbons are mainly used as refrigerants, propellants in aerosol sprays. Under the Cartegana Protocol (1987), production and emissions of chlorofluorocarbons have been curbed successfully. Which of the following are incorrect statements? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 With reference to the various methods of bioremediation consider the following statements: Biosparging involves injecting air or oxygen below the groundwater table to stimulate microbial activity. Bioaugmentation is a remediation technology used to treat contaminated soil by supplying oxygen to enhance the natural aerobic biodegradation of pollutants. Bioventing is a bioremediation strategy that involves the addition of specific strains of microorganisms to a contaminated environment to enhance the degradation of pollutants. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None 5 / 5 Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of Zero Liquid Discharge? Recycling and chemical treatment of wastewater in water-intensive industries, resulting in the reduction of liquid waste to solid waste. Segregation of domestic biodegradable sewage waste at the source. Collection and reuse of fertilizer-rich agricultural solid waste to prevent eutrophication. Sealing and disposal of all radioactive waste from nuclear power plants in underground containers. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 27, 2025 1 / 5 How many of the following are the potential applications/uses of fly ash? Portland cement concrete (PCC) Road construction Carbon dioxide capture and storage Geopolymer Ceramic tiles Only two Only three Only four All five 2 / 5 Which of the following is the reasons for the formation of Algal blooms? Storm water runoff from urban areas. Introduction of non-native species Eutrophication. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Tropospheric Ozone: Stratospheric Ozone helps protect the Earth from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays. At the lowest level of the atmosphere, the troposphere, exposure to ozone (tropospheric ozone) can be harmful to both human health and some plants. Its concentration in the troposphere is higher during the summer months as compared to the winter months. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None 4 / 5 “Diclofenac, ketoprofen, and aceclofenac” drugs recently seen in news is related to? Deaths of Lions Deaths of Vultures Vaccines to Cheetahs None of the above 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs: Disease Pollutant Minamata - mercury Trachoma - unclean water Itai-Itai - Nitrate How many of the statements given above are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 26, 2025 1 / 5 In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? Extraction of rare earth elements Natural gas extraction technologies Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles Waste-to-energy technologies 2 / 5 There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil. They can enter the food chains. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Which of the following are incorrectly matched in the context of Mangroves and their respective states? Bhavnagar estuary: Gujarat Muthupet mangroves: Kerala Pichavaram mangroves: Tamil Nadu Mahanadi mangroves : Odisha 4 / 5 In the context of sedimentary cycles, consider the following statements: The cycle begins with the weathering of rocks, breaking down into smaller particles that can be transported by wind, water, or ice. Erosion further moves these sediments to different locations. Activities like mining, construction, and agriculture can disrupt sedimentary cycles, leading to erosion, habitat destruction, and pollution. Which of the following are incorrect statements? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 It refers to the phenomenon where aquatic organisms, particularly fish, die due to low oxygen levels during the winter months when bodies of water freeze over. This occurs as ice cover limits the exchange of oxygen from the atmosphere, while decomposition of organic matter consumes available oxygen in the water. The result is hypoxic (low oxygen) or anoxic (no oxygen) conditions, leading to fish mortality and disruptions in the aquatic food web. Biomagnification Winterkill Chemical Oxygen Demand Eutrophication Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 25, 2025 1 / 5 How many among the following is/are the applications of seaweeds? Aids in the removal of heavy metals from marine ecosystem Used in the production of bioethanol. Utilized in the formulation of toothpaste and cosmetics. Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Secondary succession It takes place over a region where no community existed previously. This type of succession is relatively faster as compared to primary succession. When succession is brought about by living inhabitants of that community itself, the process is called autogenic succession. How many of the given statements is/are correct? Only one Only two Only three None 3 / 5 The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas Development of gardens using genetically modified flora Creation of mini forests in urban areas Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces 4 / 5 Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) was launched by which of the following countries? USA and Sweden India and Sweden India and France USA and France 5 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Nitrogen Cycle Nitrogen fixation is the process of converting elemental nitrogen into ammonia, nitrites, or nitrates. This conversion is necessary for plants to absorb nitrogen.. Microorganisms, such as Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium, have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions.. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 24, 2025 1 / 5 The annual rainfall exceeds 200 cm and is generally distributed throughout the year. The flora is highly diversified. The high rate of leaching makes these soils virtually useless for agricultural purposes. They can be found in regions such as Central and South America, western and central Africa, western India, Southeast Asia, the island of New Guinea, and Australia”. The above information best describes which of the following region? Tropical Rain Forests Temperate Grassland African Savannah Temperate Deciduous Forests 2 / 5 Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Cheetahs? African Cheetahs are slightly larger than the Asiatic counterparts.. African Cheetahs have much more prominent spots and lines on their face as compared to their Asian Cheetahs. Asiatic Cheetahs are much larger in population and listed as Vulnerable. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 5 Which of the following are correct about ecological succession? A community that has reached a stable state and is in close balance with its environment is known as a climax community. The complete series of communities that progressively evolve in a specific area are referred to as transitional communities. 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 “Biorock Technology” recently seen in the news related to? Coral restoration. Wastewater treatment Bioremediation Carbon capture and storage 5 / 5 Consider the following In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain. Bio magnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be insoluble in fact. How many of the given above are incorrect in the context of the Antarctic Treaty? Only one Only two All three None Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 23, 2025 1 / 5 Which of the following is not a criterion for Recognition as a Ramsar site? It supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities. It regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird It regularly supports 2,00,000 or more waterbirds. Supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits. 2 / 5 The Greening Education Partnership initiative recently seen in the news was launched by ? World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) International Maritime Organisation (IMO) Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) 3 / 5 Consider the following statements regarding the Ecological footprint : The ecological footprint (EF) estimates the biologically productive land and sea area needed to provide the renewable resources that a population consumes and to absorb the wastes it generates. The amount of carbon-dioxide that any activity by any human or machine produces is called carbon foot-print . Which of the statements provided above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Which of the following explains why an ecotone typically has greater species diversity than the adjacent ecosystems? Increased availability of physical space Absence of clearly defined boundaries for species Lack of predator species in the ecotone Absence of dominant species in the ecosystem 5 / 5 How many of the following statements in the context of Dominant species are correct? Ecological dominance is the degree to which one or more species have a significant influence over the other species. There may be more than one dominant species in some ecological communities. Different organisms in a community develop a characteristic pattern of stratification to minimize competition. Tropical forests represent a good example of vertical stratification. Only one Only two Only three All four Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 22, 2025 1 / 5 Which of the following is incorrect in the context of ecological niche? It denotes the functional role of a species within an ecosystem. Two species within an ecosystem can share the same niche. In primary succession, ecological niches are not well developed. It pertains solely to interactions with biotic components. 2 / 5 Which of the following statements accurately defines the term ‘Carrying Capacity’ in an ecosystem? It indicates the total amount of renewable resources present in the ecosystem. It represents the maximum population size that an ecosystem can sustain without causing degradation. It encompasses all the physical and chemical factors necessary for a species' survival in an ecosystem. It describes the quantity of resources consumed by each individual within the community 3 / 5 Which of the following are correctly matched? Commensalism: Barnacles on Whales Predation: Lions and Zebras Competition: Cheetahs and Lions How many of the given above are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None of the above 4 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of ecological pyramids The Pyramid of Energy is always upright, for it is governed by the laws of thermodynamics. In Pyramid of Biomass individuals at each trophic level are weighted and it can be both upright and downward Which of the given above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 Arrange the following in the ascending order of net primary productivity: Tundra Swamps Temperate grassland Oceans Select the correct answer from the codes: 4-3-1-2 3-4-1-2 4-1-3-2 1-3-4-2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 21, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following statements: Ecotone is a transitional area of vegetation between two different plant communities. Ecocline is a population (restricted to one habitat) that is adapted to local environmental conditions. Which of the given above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 2 / 5 Consider the following: Photosynthesis Respiration Decay of organic matter. How many of the given above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth? Only one Only two All three None of the above 3 / 5 Which of the following best defines the term 'ecosystem'? A community of organisms along with the environment they inhabit A community of organisms interacting with each other The part of the Earth occupied by living organisms The flora and fauna of a specific geographical area 4 / 5 If a tropical rainforest is cleared, it regenerates more slowly compared to a tropical deciduous forest because: The soil in rainforests is nutrient-deficient. Rainforest species have slower growth rates. Propagules of rainforest trees exhibit low viability. Exotic species invade the nutrient-rich soil of the rainforest. 5 / 5 Consider the following kinds of organisms: Bacteria Fungi Flowering plants Some species of how many of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides? Only one Only two All three None of the above Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 20, 2025 1 / 5 How many of the following are Lymphoid organs? Thymus . Bone marrow. Spleen. Pancreas Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 2 / 5 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the context of web 3.0? Web 3.0 is a decentralized internet to be run on blockchain technology. In Web 3.0, users will have ownership stakes in platforms and applications Web 3.0 enables peer to peer (seller to buyer) transactions by eliminating the role of the intermediary. The basis Web 3.0 is Decentralized Autonomous Organization (DAO) which authenticates transactions 3 / 5 Which of the following statements are correct in the context of mRNA vaccines? mRNA serves as a messenger, carrying the protein-making instructions. mRNA vaccines use a copy of mRNA to produce an immune response. mRNA vaccines interact with the genomic DNA and induce cellular immunity. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two All three None 4 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Technology Application 1. Blockchain Technology a. Automating decision-making processes and predictive analytics 2. Artificial Intelligence b. Secure, transparent transaction recording. 3. Internet of Things c. Enhancing user experiences in gaming and training 4. Augmented Reality d. Smart home automation and device connectivity 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 5 / 5 Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Trans Fats Trans fats are a type of saturated fat that has been chemically altered through hydrogenation. Trans fats are associated with increased LDL cholesterol and decreased HDL (good) cholesterol, significantly raising the risk of heart disease. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 19, 2025 1 / 5 How many of the following can be the implications of a solar storm? Damage to space infrastructure. Negative impact on Astronauts. Formation of Auroras. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two All three None 2 / 5 Euvichol-S vaccine recently prequalified by World Health Organization (WHO) is aimed at curing which of the following diseases? Giardiasis Typhoid Cholera Malaria 3 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Cloud seeding. It is the process of artificially generating rain by implanting clouds with particles such as silver iodide crystals. Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding is a method of inducing rain by boosting vertical air currents. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 The Bio-RIDE Scheme is implemented under which of the following ministries? Ministry of Science and Technology Ministry of Education Ministry of Commerce and Industry Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare 5 / 5 “The allotrope has a molecular structure composed entirely of carbon, typically arranged in a hollow sphere, ellipsoid, or tube. These carbon molecules can take various shapes, the most common being a spherical form that resembles a soccer ball, consisting of 60 carbon atoms. On the basis of information given above, identify the allotrope of carbon Graphite Graphene Diamond Fullerenes Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 18, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following Antimicrobial Coatings Photovoltaics Environmental Remediation. Drug Delivery Systems In how many of the above fields nanomaterials can be used? Only one Only two Only three All four 2 / 5 Consider the following statements: Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells that can differentiate into specialized cells. Embryonic stem cells can become any type of cell in the body. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Consider the following statements: Bioprinting is a process where biomaterials such as cells and growth factors are combined to create tissue-like structures that imitate natural tissues. A biosignature refers to any substance, molecule, or phenomenon that provides scientific evidence of past or present life. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Which of the following techniques cannot be used in forensic analysis? Polymerase Chain Reaction Test. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling Mitochondrial DNA Analysis Holter Monitor 5 / 5 With reference to the “Genome India Project,” which of the following statements is incorrect? The project aims to identify genetic variations linked to common diseases. It is an initiative led by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. The project seeks to provide insights into the structure and organization of human genes within the Indian population. The data collected from the project will not be made available in the public domain. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 17, 2025 1 / 5 Which one of the following chemicals is used in the manufacturing of the VOTER’S INK? Silver chloride Silver chromate Silver Sulfate Silver nitrate 2 / 5 Which among the following groups India is a member of? Wassenaar Arrangement Missile Technology Control Regime Nuclear Suppliers Group Australia Group Select the correct Ans: 1 , 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above 3 / 5 The Bletchley Declaration primarily focuses on: Combating climate change through international cooperation. The regulation and responsible development of artificial intelligence. Enhancing global nuclear disarmament efforts. Promoting economic trade agreements among European nations. 4 / 5 Consider the following: Magnetic levitation is a transport system where the vehicle is suspended above the guideway using superconducting magnets Maglev trains produce no emissions since they do not have an engine. The absence of friction between wheels and tracks allows for higher speeds Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 5 What is a kilonova explosion? A type of supernova resulting from the collapse of a massive star. An explosion that occurs when two neutron stars or a neutron star and a black hole merge. The final phase of a black hole swallowing a massive star. The formation of a new star from the remnants of a supernova Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 16, 2025 1 / 5 “Mineral X is a soft, silver-white metallic element that is highly reactive and must be stored in an inert gas or oil to prevent it from reacting with air and water. It is the lightest of all metals and has a wide range of applications, particularly in the production of rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles, consumer electronics, and energy storage systems. This element is also used in the manufacture of glass, ceramics, and certain types of high-temperature lubricants. Due to its unique properties and growing demand in various industries, Mineral X has become an increasingly important resource, with global reserves and production being closely monitored and managed.” Which metal is being described as Mineral X? Sodium Potassium Lithium Cesium 2 / 5 Which state has developed the "FIRST Cancer Care" on the lines of "FOURTH Industrial Revolution for Sustainable Transformation of Healthcare"? Meghalaya Assam Tripura Nagaland 3 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Space Mission Achievement 1. James Webb Telescope a. Infrared observation of early universe 2. Event Horizon Telescope b. Asteroid Bennu sample return 3. MAVEN c. First images of black hole 4. OSIRIS-REx d. Study of Mars atmosphere 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 4 / 5 Which of the following is not an objective of the National Quantum Mission (NQM)? Quantum Communication Network Magnetometry and Atomic Clocks Quantum Materials Design None of the above 5 / 5 Consider the following pairs: DNA Double Helix : Francis Crick CRISPR-Cas9 : Jennifer Doudna Higgs Boson: James Watson Which of the above correctly matched? 1 only All of the above 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 15, 2025 1 / 5 The International Space Station (ISS) is a large satellite orbiting the Earth. It allows scientists to live and conduct research in space.Many countries are working together to build and maintain this station. Which of the following countries is NOT a partner of the International Space Station? Europe America India Russia 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) XPoSat is the first dedicated satellite from ISRO to carry out research and measure X-ray emission from celestial sources like black holes XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) payload will carry out long-term spectral and temporal studies of cosmic X-ray sources. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 3 / 5 Match the following with the correct answers Technology Application 1. LIDAR a. Used in quantum computers to store information 2. Qubit b. Autonomous vehicle navigation 3. CRISPR c. Decentralized digital ledgerl 4. Blockchain d.Gene editing technology 1 – b , 2 – a , 3 – d , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – d , 3 – b , 4- c 1 – a , 2 – c , 3 – d , 4- b 1 – b , 2 – d , 3 – c , 4- a 4 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology NFC is the set of protocols that enable electronic devices to establish radio communication with each other in proximity. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 5 / 5 In which of the following sectors Face Recognition can be used ? Security and Surveillance Mobile Device Access Workforce Management Cancer Therapy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 14, 2025 1 / 5 Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the same class as the other three? Butterfly Grasshopper Centipede Beetle 2 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Nuclear Energy Thorium is more abundant in the Earth's crust than uranium. Thorium reactors produce significantly less long-lived radioactive waste. Thorium is not directly weaponizable. Which of the given above statements are correct? All of the above 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 3 / 5 Consider the following statements The ionosphere is divided into different layers based levels of ionization Plays a crucial role in reflecting and refracting radio waves, enabling long-distance communication. Temperature increases with altitude in the ionosphere How many of the above are correct in the context of the ionosphere? Only one Only two All three None 4 / 5 How many of the following are the conditions for an orbit to be considered as geostationary? The orbit is geosynchronous. The orbit is circular. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s equator. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236. Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 5 / 5 Consider the following statements A moderator is required in a Nuclear reactor to slow down the neutrons produced during the fission reaction. Heavy Water is an excellent moderator due to its high moderating ratio and low absorption cross section for neutrons Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 13, 2025 1 / 5 Consider the following statements in the context of Bluetooth technology Bluetooth uses short-wavelength radio waves Bluetooth devices typically have a communication range of about 10 meters Bluetooth devices must undergo a pairing process to establish a secure connection. How many of the above are correct? Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 Which of the following is incorrectly matched? USA : Mars Odyssey China : Tianwen 1 Europe : Mars express UAE : Artemis 3 / 5 Aspartame, recently seen in the news, is: A newly discovered antibiotic A type of artificial sweetener A chemical used in batteries A mineral found in deep-sea deposits 4 / 5 How many of the following are correctly matched? Singularity: This is described as the very center of a black hole where matter has collapsed into a region of infinite density. Event Horizon: This represents the boundary beyond which nothing can escape the black hole's gravitational pull - not even light. The text also mentions this is the "point of no return." Photon Sphere: A region around a rotating black hole where space-time itself is dragged along with the black hole's rotation. The Schwarzschild Radius: This is the radius of the event horizon where the escape velocity equals the speed of light Select the correct code from the answers given below: Only One Only two Only three All four 5 / 5 Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to neutrinos? Emitted from our galaxy when cosmic rays collide with interstellar matter. On Earth, neutrinos are produced when unstable atoms decay. Atmospheric neutrinos are produced from cosmic rays which consist of protons and heavy nuclei. None of the above. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz October 12, 2025 1 / 5 Which of the following are the Key Findings of India’s Chandrayan mission? Discovered water ice in the North polar region of the Moon. Finding water signatures at all latitudes on the surface of the moon. Detected new spinel-rich rocks. How many of the above are correct? Only one Only two All three None 2 / 5 This is a significant release of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun's corona, which is the outermost part of its atmosphere. These eruptions can propel billions of tons of charged particles into space at extremely high speeds. When directed toward Earth, these eruptions can interact with the planet's magnetic field, potentially causing geomagnetic storms that may disrupt satellite communications, power grids, and navigation systems. These are also responsible for intensifying auroras, creating vibrant displays near the polar regions. The information given in above paragraph refers to which of the following: Solar Flares Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) Solar Wind Sunspots 3 / 5 Consider the following statements about the hypersonic missile “Fattah”: Fattah is Israel's first hypersonic Missile with a target range of 1,400 km. India does not possess any hypersonic missile till date. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 4 / 5 Project Taara, recently seen in the news, is related to: Space exploration for new meteors. High-speed light beam internet technology Renewable energy production Advanced AI-driven medical diagnostics 5 / 5 Consider the following No dirt or impurities Affordable Causes water pollution. Eco-friendly How many of the above are correct about lab grown diamonds? Only one Only two Only three All four
